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"Where does the Bible say water baptism was for Jews only?"

Some preachers have been preaching this, and perhaps it was your preacher. Many efforts have been made by preachers to get baptism out of the plan of salvation. So some have begun preaching that water baptism belonged only to the Jews, that it was for a limited time only, and that it cannot be made binding on Gentiles. Have you heard your preacher say this?

Then go to him and ask him where the Bible makes any such statement. Personally, I have looked for that passage but have never been able to find it. But if your preacher has been preaching it, likely he has found it. So you ask him for it, and then send it to me, as I would like to have the information too.

I have read the statement of Jesus in Matt. 28:19. I remember that he there said: "Go ye therefore and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit."

In this I can see the words of Christ authorized the apostles to baptize people of "all nations." And I have always thought the Jews were just one nation. Why, then, did Jesus say baptize men of all nations if baptism was for the Jews only?

I am unable to answer this question, but if your preacher has been preaching this theory, perhaps he knows why. So ask him about it. If your preacher tells you that Peter commanded baptism for the remission of sins in

Acts 2:38 he was speaking to a multitude of Jews, and that this proves that baptism is for the Jews only, ask him what the next verse means. It says, "For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call."

To whom did Peter offer the promise? He said it is "to you." This referred to the Jews then present. But he also said it is "to your children." This refers to the descendants of the Jews. But was that all? No, he further said the promise is "to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call."

Has God ever called the Gentiles ? Then the promise is to them too. So this extends the promise to all Jews and Gentiles. But can the promise extend farther than the conditions upon which the promise is made? Certainly not.

Well, the promise is conditioned on baptism. Hence, baptism extends as far as the promise. It applied then "to you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call." If your preacher, after reading these things, still insists that baptism was only for the Jews, then ask him why Peter commanded Gentiles to be baptized at the house of Cornelius. This record is found in Acts 10:47,48.

He was telling Gentiles words by which they were to be saved. And the record tells us that Peter said this: "Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Spirit as well as we?

And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord." This is specific and direct. Peter commanded Gentiles to be baptized in the name of the Lord. And he was referring to water baptism, for he said: "Who can forbid water?"

Ask your preacher if Peter made a mistake when he commanded Gentiles to be baptized. If baptism is for the Jews only, then Peter did make a mistake. But he was guided by the Lord. A number of miracles were worked to get Peter to the Gentiles to tell them this very thing. So somebody is wrong; either your preacher or Peter. Ask your preacher which it is.

If you have any question or comments or would like to have bible correspondence course absolutely free.